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|Sample Questions for HAAD, Prometric and DHA for Nurses Part 2 by Ngee : July 24, 2016, 03:46:27 PM|
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A client with pemphigus is being seen in the clinic regularly. The nurse plans care based on which of the following descriptions of this condition?
A. The presence of tiny red vesicles
B. An autoimmune disease that causes blistering in the epidermis
C. The presence of skin vesicles found along the nerve caused by a virus
D. The presence of red, raised papules and large plaques covered by silvery scales
The nurse is caring for a client in the coronary care unit. The display on the cardiac monitor indicates ventricular fibrillation. What should the nurse do first?
A. Perform defibrillation
B. Administer epinephrine as ordered
C. Assess for presence of pulse
D. Institute CPR
answer is C: Assess for presence of pulse .Artifact can mimic ventricular fibrillation on a cardiac monitor. If the client is truly in ventricular fibrillation, no pulse will be present.
The nurse is assigned to a newly delivered woman with HIV/AIDS. The student asks the nurse about how it is determined that a person has AIDS other than a positive HIV test. The nurse responds
A. "The complaints of at least 3 common findings."
B. "The absence of any opportunistic infection."
C. "CD4 lymphocyte count is less than 200."
D. "Developmental delays in children."
A answer C: "CD4 lymphocyte count is less than 200." CD4 lymphocyte counts are normally 600 to 1000.
The home care nurse is performing an assessment on a client who has been diagnosed with an allergy to latex. In determining the client’s risk factors associated with the allergy, the nurse questions the client about an allergy to which food item?
Initial step while detecting pulmonary embolism?
A. Start IV line
B. Check vitals
C. Administer morphine
D. Administer oxygen
Major health complications associated with maternal Zika virus infection?
C. Rheumatic heart disease
D. Myasthenia gravis .
While assessing a client in an outpatient facility with a panic disorder, the nurse completes a thorough health history and physical exam. Which finding is most significant for this client?
A. Compulsive behavior
B. Sense of impending doom
C. Fear of flying
D. Predictable episodes
Answer is B: Sense of impending doom
The feeling of overwhelming and uncontrollable doom is characteristic of a panic attack.
Indications for fundoplication?
A. Hiatus hernia
B. Diaphragmatic hernia
D. All the above
Left ventricular pressure can be measured by using
A. C.V. C
B. Pulmonary artery catheter
C. Swanz - Ganz Catheter
D. All the above
E. Both B&C
United Nations decided to mark the importance of India’s former President and great scientist APJ Abdul Kalam and declared his birthday as ‘World Students Day’. The world students day is ....?
A. November 15
B. October 15
C. October 17
D. November 17
Sex education should be given to
Dowager's hump is the forward curvature(kyphosis) of the spine resulting in a stoop, caused by collapse of the front edges of the thoracic vertebrae commonly seen in....?
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
D. Lumbar fracture
Cessation of breathing more than ....seconds is known as apnea
While newborns vitals assessments , it should be
Koplik spots (also Koplik's sign) are a prodromic viral enanthem of ---- disease?
A. Chikun gunya
C. Herpes zoster
D. Herpes simplex
CVP is the pressure within
Anti - infective vitamin?
Scilent killer in neonates?
Which of the following condition Christmas disease ?
C. Hemophilia A
D. Hemophilia B
Answer : D
Zika is a viral diseases transmitted by mosquito
D. Asian tiger
Answer : B
Malnutrition landmark in children?
A. Head circumference
B. Chest circumference
C. Mid arm circumference
D. Milestone achievement
Trendelenburg test is used to detect
B. Varicose vein
C . vulvular disorder
A reflex that is seen in normal newborn babies, who automatically turn the face toward the stimulus and make sucking motions with the mouth when the cheek or lip is touched.
Rh positive mother has to receive Rh immunoglobulin at
A. 14 weeks
B. 26 weeks
C. 32 weeks
D. None of these.
E. 28 weeks
F. After delivery
CA cervix caused by
B. H. Pylori
C. E coli
E. Gardnerella vaginalis
" Vande matharam " project associated with
B. Antenatal care
C. Breast feeding
D. Child care
Royal disease is....
D. Nephrotic syndrome
Immediately after amniotomy the nurse should check
A. Uterine tone
B. Bladder distension
E. Cervical dilation
Degree 4 th , uterine prolapse?
A. uterine inversion
B. Uterine atony
Toxic shock syndrome is due to
B. Staphylococcus aureus.
Toxic shock syndrome is a rare, life-threatening complication of certain types of bacterial infections. Often toxic shock syndrome results from toxins produced by Staphylococcus aureus (staph) bacteria, but the condition may also be caused by toxins produced by group A streptococcus (strep) bacteria.
Molloscum contagiosum is caused by...
Colostrum contains highest %
D. Vitamins & minerals
Normal sperm densities range
A. 20 - 300 million/ ml
B. 10- 20 billion/ ml
C. 10000- 20000/ ml
D. None of these.
Mr.Ashok orients his staff on the patterns of reporting relationship throughout the organization. Which of the following principles refer to this?
A.Span of control
C.Esprit d’ corps
D. Unity of direction
Centralized organizations have some advantages. Which of the following statements are TRUE?
A. Highly cost-effective
B. Makes management easier
C. Reflects the interest of the worker
D. Allows quick decisions or actions.
E. Both A&B
F. Both C&D
Which of the following guidelines should be least considered in formulating objectives for nursing care?
A. Written nursing care plan
B. Holistic approach
C. Prescribed standards
D. Staff preferences
Rh negative mother has to receive RH D immunoglobulin with in ----- days postpartum
C. Pelvic abscess
An opioid analgesic is administered to a client during surgery. The nurse assigned to care for the client ensures that which medication is readily available if respiratory depression occurs?
B. Morphine sulfate
D. Meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol)
Fetal bradycardia means HR below
A good fetal outcome in contraction test ...?
D. None of these.
Liquor amnie exceeds 2000ml
D. Both A & C
Answer : D
MTP act enforced in ...?
Early sign of DIC
C. Clot formation
D. Vascular obstruction
Highest degree of abortion seen among
A. Husband with A blood group and wife with O group
B. Husband with O blood group and wife with A group
C. Husband with A blood group and wife with B group
D. Husband with AB blood group and wife with O group
.Deferoxamine is administered in overdose of:
B. Calcium gluconate
D. Beta blockers
The nurse is preparing to teach a client how to use crutches. Before initiating the lesson, the nurse performs an assessment on the client.The priority nursing assessment should include which focus?
A. The client's feelings about the restricted mobility
B. The client's fear related to the use of the crutches
C. The client's muscle strength and previous activity level
D. The client's understanding of the need for increased mobility
Most specific enzyme for MI?
Which is the following largest and most muscular chamber of heart
Uterine contractions monitored by ......?
A. Friedman's curve
Which of the following drug shows drug holiday
After TURP, the client having continues bladder irrigation. Which of these statements explain the reason for continuous bladder irrigation?
a. To remove clot from the bladder
b. To maintain the patency of the catheter
c. To maintain the patency of the bladder
d. To dilute urine
The nurse has developed a plan of care for a client diagnosed with anorexia nervosa. Which client problem should the nurse select as the priority in the plan of care?
B. Inability to cope
C. Concern about body appearance
D. Lack of knowledge about nutrition
Which hormone is responsible for amenorrhoea after delivery or in postpartum period..(in proper lactating women)..??
Why should an infant be quiet and seated upright when the nurse checks his fontanels?
A. The mother will have less trouble holding a quiet, upright infant.
B. Lying down can cause the fontanels to recede, making assessment more difficult.
C. The infant can breathe more easily when sitting up.
D. Lying down and crying can cause the fontanels to bulge.
Which of the following is an appropriate nursing diagnosis for a client with renal calculi?
A. Ineffective tissue perfusion
B. Functional urinary incontinence
C. Risk for infection
D. Decreased cardiac output
Most common site of hematoma during postpartum period?
A. Uterine hematoma
D. Vulvar hematoma
Which trait is the most important for ensuring that a nurse-manager is effective?
A. Communication skills
B. Clinical abilities
C. Health care experience
D. Time management skills
Communication skills are a necessity for a successful nurse-manager. The manager must be able to communicate with the staff, clients, and family members. Clinical abilities, experience, and time management are also important to the manager's success, but without communication skills the manager won't be effective.
Which of the following ECG lead shows changes In IWMI
A. LEAD 2
Absence of recognizable QRS Complex in ECG indicate
Another name Of Glucose?
A. Fruit sugar,
B. Cane Sugar,
Daily Requirements of protein Is per Kilogram of Body weight?
A) 1 gm,
A client on prolonged bed rest has developed a pressure ulcer. The wound shows no signs of healing even though the client has received appropriate skin care and has been turned every 2 hours. Which factor is most likely responsible for the failure to heal?
A. Inadequate vitamin D intake
B. Inadequate protein intake
C. Inadequate massaging of the affected area
D. Low calcium level
Clients on bed rest suffer from a lack of movement and a negative nitrogen balance.
In Gynace ward , the find out a client, she is on PPH . What the nurse should do first?
B. Call physician
C. Eliminate the blood loss
D. Stay with the client & call for help.
Client may goes to shock. So stay with client
Call help and ask another to call doctor.eliminate blood loss. Then monitor & record vitals
A client complains of abdominal discomfort and nausea while receiving tube feedings. Which intervention is most appropriate for this problem?
A. Giving the feedings at room temperature
B. Decreasing the rate of feedings and the concentration of the formula
C. Placing the client in semi-Fowler's position while feeding
D. Changing the tube feeding administration set every 24 hours
Decreasing the rate of feedings and the concentration of the formula. Its the higher priority.
which detail of a client's drug therapy is the nurse legally responsible for documenting?
A. Peak concentration time of the drug
B. Safe ranges of the drug
C. Client's socioeconomic data
D. Client's reaction to the drug
The nurse legally must document the client's reaction to the drug in addition to the time the drug was administered and the dosage given. The nurse isn't legally responsible for documenting the peak concentration time of the drug, safe drug ranges, or the client's socioeconomic data.
The Ward nurse administering mannitol and the doctor advised slowly to be given. Why?
The risk for ---?
A. cerebral embolism
B. Pulmonary edema
D. Fluid overload
Rapid fluid shift will results pulmonary edema
The nurse is collecting data on a client before surgery. Which statement by the client would alert the nurse to the presence of risk factors for postoperative complications?
A "I haven't been able to eat anything solid for the past 2 days."
B. "I've never had surgery before."
C. "I had an operation 2 years ago, and I don't want to have another one."
D. "I've cut my smoking down from two packs to one pack per day."
The physician prescribes morphine 4 mg I.V. every 2 hours as needed for pain. The nurse should be on the alert for which adverse reaction to morphine?
D. Respiratory depression
The nurse should be alert for respiratory depression after morphine administration. Other adverse reactions include bradycardia (not tachycardia), thrombocytopenia (not neutropenia), and hypotension (not hypertension).
The nurse is auscultating a client's chest. How can the nurse differentiate a pleural friction rub from other abnormal breath sounds?
A. A rub occurs during expiration only and produces a light, popping, musical noise.
B. A rub occurs during inspiration only and may be heard anywhere.
C. A rub occurs during both inspiration and expiration and produces a squeaking or grating sound.
D. A rub occurs during inspiration only and clears with coughing.
A male client has been complaining of chest pain and shortness of breath for the past 2 hours. He has a temperature of 99° F (37.2° C), a pulse of 96 beats/minute, respirations that are irregular and 16 breaths/minute, and a blood pressure of 140/96 mm Hg. He's placed on continuous cardiac monitoring to:
A. prevent cardiac ischemia.
B. assess for potentially dangerous arrhythmias.
C. determine the degree of damage to the heart muscle.
D. evaluate cardiovascular function.
A client with mitral stenosis is scheduled for mitral valve replacement. Which condition may arise as a complication of mitral stenosis?
A. Left-sided heart failure
B. Myocardial ischemia
C. Pulmonary hypertension
D. Left ventricular hypertrophy
Mitral stenosis, or severe narrowing of the mitral valve, impedes blood flow through the stenotic valve, increasing pressure in the left atrium and pulmonary circulation.
INR Value of patient with mechanical valves
4)none of above
A client with chest pain doesn't respond to nitroglycerin (Nitrostat). On admission to the emergency department, the health care team obtains an electrocardiogram and administers I.V. morphine. The physician also considers administering alteplase (Activase). This thrombolytic agent must be administered how soon after onset of myocardial infarction (MI) symptoms?
A. Within 3 to 6 hours
B. Within 24 hours
C. Within 24 to 48 hours
D. Within 5 to 7 days
An unconscious infant received to the emergency department. Which pulse should the nurse palpate during rapid data collection of an unconscious infant?
The brachial pulse is palpated during rapid data collection of an infant.
During rapid data collection, the nurse's first priority is to check the client's vital functions by checking his airway, breathing, and circulation.
The nurse places a neonate with hyperbilirubinemia under a phototherapy lamp, covering the eyes and gonads for protection. The nurse knows that the goal of phototherapy is to:
A. prevent hypothermia.
B. promote respiratory stability.
C. decrease the serum conjugated bilirubin level.
D. decrease the serum unconjugated bilirubin level.
Phototherapy is the primary treatment in neonates with unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia. Photoisomerism is the therapeutic principle working here.
This conjugated form of bilirubin is then excreted into the bile and removed from the body via the gut/urine.
The physician orders an I.M. injection for a client. Which factor may affect the drug absorption rate from an I.M. injection site?
A. Muscle tone
B. Muscle strength
C. Blood flow to the injection site
D. Amount of body fat at the injection site
Blood flow to the I.M. injection site affects the drug absorption rate. Muscle tone and strength have no effect on drug absorption.
What is the most appropriate method to use when drawing blood from a child with hemophilia?
A. Use finger punctures for lab draws.
B. Be prepared to administer platelets for prolonged bleeding.
C. Apply heat to the extremity before venipunctures.
D. Schedule all labs to be drawn at one time.
For a client with cirrhosis, deterioration of hepatic function is best indicated by:
A. fatigue and muscle weakness.
B. difficulty in arousal.
C. nausea and anorexia.
D. weight gain.
Hepatic encephalopathy, a major complication of advanced cirrhosis, occurs when the liver no longer can convert ammonia (a by-product of protein breakdown) into glutamine. This leads to an increased blood level of ammonia — a central nervous system toxin — which causes a decrease in the level of consciousness. Fatigue, muscle weakness, nausea, anorexia, and weight gain occur during the early stages of cirrhosis.
|Re: Sample Questions for HAAD, Prometric and DHA for Nurses Part 2 by Madiha : January 05, 2017, 12:43:25 AM|
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